Forward Observer Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the normal mission reaction time for Targets of Opportunity?
• During an adjustment of Final Protective Fire after the first volley, which round is used to begin the adjustment?
• To determine the OT factor, the observer must divide distance to the target by what value?
• How many cardinal directions are there on a standard compass?
• Which option is NOT a key to acquiring an accurate target location?
• When adjusting an FPF using a manual FDC, after the first rounds have impacted, which gun is adjusted first?
• Which of the following is not a standard product required of all fire support plans?
• Which of the following best describes the Q-36's primary function?
• Considerations for planning defensive fires include the following:
• Which of the following is NOT a listed DANGER CLOSE distance?
• Cannot be determined
• In a basic Call for Fire, the transmissions are grouped into three groups: Observer ID and Warning Order; Target Location; and Target Description, Method of Engagement, and Method of Fire and Control. Which option correctly reflects this grouping?
• What is the maximum range of the AN/PVS-6 MELIOS?
• To request high-angle fire when in defilade, which element is used?
• What is the maximum range for the 120mm mortar system?
• Using ADAMS projectile (M692 or M731), how many anti-personnel mines are in each projectile?
• Which measure protects friendly forces waiting to move through breach lane?
• Which three elements must be addressed when developing a 'Task' for your fires paragraph?
• Name the 15 Subsequent Corrections.
• What is the normal mission reaction time for On-Call Targets?
• You are engaging mortars in defilade and wish to shoot high angle. In which element would you request high angle?
• Which factors influence the effectiveness of smoke?
• There are ___ radial arms that are 100 mils apart on an OF fan.
• SOSRA stands for?
• Which field-expedient method can determine direction by the position of a shadow relative to an object?
• The armed OH-58D can carry what type of machine guns?
• The roles of the Field Artillery include Close Support and Attack in Depth and which additional function?
• One of the keys to acquiring an accurate target location is self-locating to within how many meters every time you move?
• What is the maximum range of the AN/TPQ-37 Fire Finder Radar System?
• When conducting a mortar registration and the observer breaks the 50 meter bracket, what is his next correction?
• What is the primary purpose of SEAD?
• How many elements to the call-for-fire are there?
• In defense, is it acceptable to position BN/CO mortars forward initially to allow for deeper engagements of enemy forces?
• What is the purpose of labeling a terrain sketch with Description, Direction, Distance, Altitude, and Grid?
• When planning an FPF, the FSO/FSNCO should ensure the indirect FPF is fully integrated with his maneuver commander's direct fire weapons plan with consideration for final protective line, primary direction of fire, grazing fire and mostly likely/most dangerous avenue of approach for the enemy.
• Which term describes the point at which a timed run begins?
• Which option completes the phrase: The two types of precision missions are ____ and ____?
• Redundant observers in defense planning are intended to trigger or execute essential fires tasks.
• A standard Call For Fire (CFF) is transmitted in how many transmissions?
• What are the standard three products required of all fire support plans?
• Which unit is used for angular measurements in this practice?
• What fuze setting should be used while adjusting your FPF? Why?
• How many primary methods of target location are identified?
• The FPF planning size expresses width and depth. Which pair of dimensions is used?
• True or False: The FSO will determine the firing unit(s) to attack and the method of attack for each target using the target list work sheet, overlays, and commander's guidance.
• Preparation fires can be used for what purposes?
• Which statement about ICM deviation thresholds is correct?
• The Initial Point (IP) is defined as the point at which the aircraft starts its timed run at the target.
• The second letter of the two-letter group at the beginning of a target number is assigned from battalion level to company level.
• The armed OH-58D can carry what type of machine gun?
• What is the standard FPF depth for 60mm mortars?
• In a precision registration scenario where the last shot is nearest the registration point, the refinement should be
• What is an Essential Fire Support Task?
• The observer announces the difference in the vertical shift if it is greater than how many meters?
• What is the normal mission reaction time for Priority Targets?
• Boundaries are considered permissive and restrictive fire support. Coordination measures.
• A target that appears during combat against fires not planned is known as a:
• What is the area with specific restrictions where fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing headquarters called?
• Which of the following is not a principle of fire support?
• True or False: The sustained rate of fire for a 105mm howitzer is three rounds per minute.
• A coordinated fire line (CFL) is established by a ___.
• What unit is used to express the Q-36 search sector?
• In a basic Call for Fire, which elements are transmitted?
• A Target of Opportunity can be engaged by ground, naval, or aircraft fire.
• Which of the following are standard offensive operations?
• Which statement about fire support coordination measures is false?
• DANGER CLOSE belongs to which element of the Call For Fire?
• True or False: A weapon system can typically handle more than one Final Protective Fire at a time.
• The two types of airspace coordination areas are ____ and _____.
• If the side view of a BMP is 6.8 meters and you measure it as 2 mils in your binoculars, what is the estimated distance?
• Name the two methods of crater analysis for low angle (artillery) fire.
• What are the two methods an FSO/FSNCO will use to execute SEAD?
• To authorize the aircraft to attack the ground, the observer must announce which clearance?
• What does FPF stand for in fire support planning?
• Define - Program.
• What is the minimum range the MELIOS can determine?
• The AN/TPQ-36 Fire Finder Radar System is most accurate against which target type?
• Fire support coordination measures are designed to facilitate rapid engagement of targets while safeguarding friendly forces.
• What is the 1000-meter grid square identifier for Fort Lewis?
• Normally indirect fires would be used to reinforce which type of wire obstacles?
• "Attached" means that those individuals/teams/units are placed under control of a different HQ for the purpose of tactical operations on a temporary basis; this HQ commands and controls, but does not provide logistics, admin, or personnel support.
• ADAMS projectiles are configured with how many anti-personnel mines per round?
• What is a trigger?
• The 'Effect' portion of a standard fires paragraph attempts to quantify the successful accomplishment of the task and provides the basis for the assess function in D3A.
• What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for Artillery?
• Name the three portions of the CFF Warning Order.
• Which statement best describes an Immediate CAS request relative to a Preplanned CAS request?
• Which of the following is a field expedient method when determining direction?
• Which of the following describes the capabilities of a 120mm mortar system?
• Which platform is capable of firing Hellfire missiles?
• What is the purpose of the fighter check-in brief?
• Which of the following is not part of the AC-130H armament?
• In the Remarks block, marking Mortar PRI TGT indicates what?
• Which statement best describes the difference between a Concept of Fires and a Scheme of Fires?
• Which option is a planning consideration for fires in defense with engagement areas (EAs)?
• Which of the following is a recognized method of target location?
• The maximum rate of fire for 60mm mortars is ____ rounds per minute for ___ minutes.
• SEAD stands for which of the following?
• What DA Form is used to record a standard shelling and bomb report?
• Which option is a planning consideration to ensure continuity of fires in breaching operations?
• Which term describes the predetermined attack of targets of a similar nature?
• In a Shift From a Known Point fire mission, who needs to know the Observer's location?
• In defense, should planners include redundant observers to trigger or execute essential fires tasks?
• Define - Series.
• The AH-64 is capable of firing which combination of weapons?
• A 8-digit grid location provides higher accuracy than a 4-digit grid location.
• Which statement describes the relationship between Concept of Fires and Scheme of Fires?
• You are conducting the time portion of an impact and time registration and spot one airburst and 3 graze bursts. What is your correction?
• Which term is best described by 'Movement to Contact' in standard offensive operations?
• The fighter check-in brief is transmitted to which entity?
• Where should you write the name, date, and location on the terrain sketch?
• Which of the following pairs correctly matches a weapon to its standard FPF depth, for 81mm mortars?
• Using the flash-to-bang method, if the time between the flash and the bang is 11 seconds, what is the estimated distance?
• Which is the correct expansion of SOSRA?
• What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for Mortar?
• What is the maximum range of the M249 SAW?
• Triggers are an essential part of fire plan development for offensive operations; what is the basic computational formula (math step) for triggering the initiation and shifting of fires?
• In the hand measurement of angular deviation, what is the value for Whole Hand extended (meters)?
• Define - On-Call Targets.
• During a movement-to-contact, FSOs/FSNCOs should consider planning fires;
• What is the purpose of suppression fires in SOSR-A?
• T or F - Immediate smoke is typically employed against a small area while quick smoke is typically employed against a larger area requiring the observer to inform his firing unit of the target length, the target attitude, the wind direction, and the length of time the smoke is required.
• In a call-for-fire, how many elements are there?
• T or F - The mission of Fire Support is the collective and coordinated employment of the fires of armed aircraft, land- and sea-based indirect fire systems, and electronic warfare (EW) systems against ground targets to support land combat operations.
• How many methods are there for determining the speed of a moving target?
• In forward observer calculations, which combination forms the mil relation formula used to compute deviation in mils?
• When integrating an indirect FPF with the maneuver commander's plan, which factors must be considered?
• T or F - With regards to techniques for sharing targeting data between Co/Bn/Bde FSEs, quick fire planning differs from deliberate fire planning in that during deliberate fire planning a majority of required targeting data is passed "top down" while during quick fire planning this targeting data is usually accomplished by "bottom up" techniques?
• During the impact portion of a Registration, what are the automatic refinement corrections for the following cases: nearest to the first fired rounds, equidistant between two sets, or nearer the far end?
• What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for the 16-inch weapon?
• In a nine-line CAS brief, which line describes the Location of Friendly unit's?
• In a nine-line CAS brief, which option corresponds to the line for Location of Friendly unit's?
• What is the first thing you draw on the terrain sketch?
• Define - Scheduled Target.
• Which pair correctly matches the weapon to its DANGER CLOSE distance?
• What is the maximum range of the AN/TVQ-2 GNLLD (DISMOUNTED)?
• A ____ is a concise, easy planning tool, which shows the many factors of a complicated fire support plan and it helps the FSO and the commander understand how the fire plan supports and scheme of maneuver.
• The speed of sound used in the flash-to-bang method is approximately how many meters per second?
• Which list correctly names the five items used to label a T on a terrain sketch?
• How many radial arms are there on the OF fan?
• Which pair of corrections are used for shifts in Call For Fire, covering range and elevation?
• A tactical task is a clearly defined measurable activity accomplished by individuals and organizations which contributes to the accomplishment of encompassing missions: the following is not a tactical task.
• Which item is NOT among the corrections listed as a Subsequent Correction?
• If you are estimating distance using a wood line and you can see the tree trunks, main branches are distinguishable, foliage appears as a smooth surface and the outlines of foliage of separate trees are distinguishable, the estimated distance is approximately how many meters?
• During breaching planning, what is the purpose of using smoke?
• Which of the following is NOT a basic fire support task?
• During the FFE phase of a CFF, if rounds are inaccurate, what actions should the Observer take?
• Which of the following describes essential fire support tasks?
• The forward-positioning of mortars at the outset of defense is to allow deeper engagements of enemy forces.
• What is the max range in meters for the M224 / 60mm mortar firing HE?
• Which fire support target category has the longest normal mission reaction time?
• T or F - Fire planning for a deliberate attack typically adheres to the top-down with bottom-up refinement methodology.
• The radial arm of an OF fan extends to a measurement of _______ meters.
• The command used to report incorrect data for the last salvo is:
• Fire support assets are generally more responsive in supporting defensive operations when they are centrally controlled.
• Which weapon has a DANGER CLOSE distance of 750 meters?
• Which projectile contains anti-personnel mines?
• What is the maximum range of the AN/TAS-4B Night Sight (DISMOUNTED)?
• Typically the method is described by covering three categories. Which are they?
• An Informal ACA is normally NOT depicted on charts and maps.
• Which items are included in the Copperhead mission MTO?
• What is the maximum range in meters for the M119 105mm howitzer?
• When sending your 9 line CAS Briefing, friendly location is sent how?
• RAAMS projectiles are configured with how many anti-armor mines per round?
• Which document helps the Fire Support Officer understand how the fire plan supports the scheme of maneuver?
• Which factor is added to normal mission reaction times to account for target range?
• Targets acquired within a restrictive Fire Area may be attacked immediately if?
• Which two terms describe types of Close Air Support (CAS) requests?
• A _______ is an area into which no fires or their effects may be delivered except on a mission-by-mission basis after coordination with the establishing headquarters.
• Which statement correctly states the 105mm Howitzer’s maximum ranges for HE and RAP?
• Which combination lists the three permissive Fire Support Coordination Measures?
• What is the maximum range of the 105mm Howitzer?
• When transmitting line 4 of the 9 line CAS Briefing, it is sent in ____.
• What basic question does the Method portion of a fires paragraph answer?
• What is the maximum range in meters for the M252 / 81mm Mortar firing HE?
• Which of the following is a doctrinal example of a 'Task' for fires?
• Which is the greatest DANGER CLOSE distance listed?
• How many Fire Support Coordination Measures (FSCM) are there?
• What is the max range in meters for the M120 / 120 MM mortar firing HE?
• Where is illumination typically planned in defensive operations?
• During offensive operations, FSOs/FSNCOs should be prepared to plan fires ISO breaching operations using SOSR-A; what does the acronym SOSR-A mean?
• Define - Priority Target.
• Which option represents a correct element you would include in a Call For Fire (CFF)?
• When adjusting a quick smoke mission onto a targeted location, what round is used in your initial adjustment phase?
• Define fire support planning
• True or False: Fire support coordination measures are designed to facilitate the rapid engagement of targets and at the same time provide safeguards for friendly forces.
• Which option represents a complete list of the five methods for determining direction?
• What is the Danger Close distance for Naval Gunfire (5 inch or smaller)?
• T or F - The basic fire support tasks are the follows: support forces in contact, support the concept of operations, synchronize fir support, and sustain fire support operations.
• On a schedule of fires worksheet the time block contains the actual scheduling data for each target within a schedule to depict duration of fire; usually labeled in 1 minute intervals. A dot on the schedule of fires worksheet represents what?
• A naval gunfire call for fire is sent in how many transmissions?
• In the Shift from Known Point method, the observer locates the target by describing its location in relation to a point of known location.
• Which statement lists the items included in the MTO for a Copperhead mission?
• Define - Restrictive Fire Area.
• Which statement is true about the first step in drawing a terrain sketch?
• What is the maximum detection range for rockets by the Q-36 in kilometers?
• Which projectile contains anti-armor mines?
• Plan for target handoff between units.
• Which formula expresses distance as the target size divided by the angular size in mils?
• What are the Danger Close distances for Mortars, Naval Gunfire (5 inch or smaller), and Artillery?
• Which system has a maximum range of 50,000 meters?
• What is the doctrinal memory aid used when developing the 'method' for a standard fires paragraph?
• This command is sent to the observer by the ship to report the last salvo was fired with incorrected data.
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of smoke?
• Which is not a form of maneuver?
• Which phrase indicates a FA priority target in the remarks?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five methods of determining direction?
• GRID NORTH is defined as which of the following?
• True or False: One of the three control measures for CAS missions is the initial point; the initial point is the point that the aircraft makes his initial contact with the observer.
• Targets included in a group may be attacked individually.
• What are the planning dimensions (width by depth) of an FPF for a 105 mm, 6-gun battery?
• Which of the following is NOT a Field Artillery Standard Tactical Mission?
• You are adjusting a time round and the spotting is a graze. What is your automatic correction after already having a previous airburst?
• Which smoke characteristic is used for signaling on the battlefield?
• What is the equation used to measure distance using the flash-to-bang method?
• An RFL is a line established between converging friendly forces that prohibits fires, or their effects, across the line without coordination with the affected force. This statement is:
• On a Target List Work Sheet, work columns are used for what?
• Using the hand method, three fingers correspond to mils?
• What is the max range in meters for the M119 Howitzer firing RAP?
• The maximum range for a M119 105mm howitzer is ____ meters.
• The front view of a T-72 tank is 3.6 meters and you measure it as being 4 mils in your binoculars. What is the estimated distance to the tank?
• Using RAAMS projectile (Ml78 or M174), how many anti-armor mines are in each projectile?
• Which statement is true about the two types of airspace coordination areas?
• Which statement correctly identifies the three permissive Fire Support Coordination Measures?
• A priority target is annotated on the target list by placing the words FA PRI TGT or Mortar PRI TGT in the remarks column. What else should be specified in the remarks block?
• Which smoke characteristic is described as a smoke curtain used to mask maneuvers between enemy observation points and friendly units?
• Which mortar caliber is mentioned for FPF planning?
• In the hand measurement of angular deviation, what is the value for Four Fingers (meters)?
• Because of the size of the effects pattern for ICM, deviation shifts of less than 50m and range corrections of less than 100m should not be made.
• Which weapon category has the shorter Q-36 detection range?
• What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for Naval 5 in?
• What is the armament of the AC-130H model?
• In a standard fires paragraph, which element quantifies the expected result and provides the basis for assessment?
• You are doing a precision registration and have your 2 rounds over and 2 rounds short. the last round fired was nearest to the registration point, what is your refinement?
• Which formula is used to compute the angular deviation between the OT line and the known point?
• The Q-36 is optimized to locate which type weapons systems?
• How many mils can the Q36 search at one time?
• Who may establish the Fire Support Coordination Line (FSCL)?
• Which of the following is a Field Artillery Standard Tactical Mission?
• The observer describes target location in relation to a known point when using Shift from a Known Point method.
• What are the two delivery techniques for the use of smoke?
• Which process is used to obtain approval for attacking targets with indirect fires?
• Which statement is true about DANGER CLOSE distances?
• The two types of precision missions are ____ and ____.
• What is the DANGER CLOSE distance for the 16-inch weapon?
• Should the observer continually update his terrain sketch?
• Which type of smoke mission would be used to mask friendly movement?
• A ___ is an area in which any weapon system can fire conventional or improved munitions without additional coordination.
• While adjusting your 105mm FPF (manual FDC, platoon 4 gun), you notice in the first volley that Gun #1 and Gun #3 within the sheaf impacted closest to your planned FPF line which gun do you adjust first?
• What is the multiplier used in the flash-to-bang distance calculation?
• In the hand measurement of angular deviation, what is the value for Two Fingers (meters)?
• The maximum range for detecting for the Q36 is __ for artillery and mortars and ___ for rockets in kilometers.
• Using the hand measurement of angular deviation, 3 fingers represent ____ mils.
• FSCMs are designed to facilitate the rapid engagement of targets and provide safeguards for friendly forces. What are the two types of FSCMs?
• Name the three types of defensive operations.
• Which distance is correctly matched with its weapon's DANGER CLOSE value?
• What is the danger close distance for Naval 16-inch ICM?
• In SEAD planning, what is the purpose of covering ingress and egress prior to aircraft reaching the threat until out of the threat fan?
• What are the standard offensive operations?
• Clearance of fires is the process of what?
• If a gunnery liaison references DANGER CLOSE for a 16-inch weapon, the distance is approximately?
• A linear target symbol indicates that the target is more than ___ meters but less than ___ meters.
• In the concept of fires, EFSTs are integrated with the Scheme of Maneuver to achieve the commander’s intent. Which statement best describes EFSTs?
• In an illumination mission, if the illumination round burns out 20 meters above the ground and the OT factor is 3, what is your correction?
• A ___ is a line between two converging forces, No fires ( direct or indirect) or their effects across the line are allowed without coordination with the affected force.
• Once the aircraft is within communication range, the fighter transmits a ____ to the observer controller.
• Which weapon is associated with a DANGER CLOSE distance of 750 meters?
• An Informal ACA is commonly used and is not depicted on charts, and can be established by using which separations?
• What is the Universal Transverse Mercator (UTM) grid for the Yakima Training Center?
• What is the maximum range of the AN/TPQ-36 Fire Finder Radar System?
• Which term describes a target on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all other fires?
• The planning size (width and depth) of an FPF of a 120 mm 4 gun mortar platoon is ____ meters by ___ meters.
• What is the max range in meters for the M198 Howitzer firing RAP M549A1?
• When additional accuracy is required, the observer should obtain an 8 digit grid target location.
• Which of the following is explicitly a planning consideration for breaching operations?
• Which of the following is true regarding deception fires?
• Which statement about RAAMS rounds and anti-armor mines is accurate?
• What is the preferred artillery munition when attacking tanks?
• Which clearance must the observer issue to allow a CAS engagement?
• DANGER CLOSE is associated with which Call For Fire element?
• Which listed maximum range is the greatest?